UPSC Air Safety Officer 2018

Air flowing at high speed in a wind tunnel has pressure and temperature equal to 0.3 atm and -100°C respectively. What is the specific volume? (Take 1 atm as 1.01 × 10⁵ N/m²)

1. 3.2 m³/kg
2. 1.6 m³/kg
3. 0.8 m³/kg
4. 0.4 m³/kg

What is the indication of the last two digits in an early NACA 2412 airfoil series?

1. Maximum camber number
2. Maximum thickness
3. Maximum chord
4. Maximum diameter

Which type of drag arises from the resolved components of the tangential stresses on the surface of the body when viscous fluid flows along the surface?

1. Trailing vortex drag
2. Wave drag
3. Surface friction drag
4. Boundary layer normal-pressure drag

Which one of the following statements is true for airplane performance conditions that occur at maximum Lift/Drag ratio?

1. Maximum range of propeller-driven airplanes
2. Maximum flow of air
3. Maximum fuel consumption
4. Maximum surface area for airplanes

An airfoil has root chord 1.8 m and tip chord 0.9 m. What is the taper ratio?

1. 2
2. 1
3. 0.5
4. 0.25

If f(x) = ... , then lim x→0 f(x) is

1. is equal to 0
2. is equal to -1
3. does not exist
4. is equal to 2

Consider the following statements regarding forces acting on an airplane in flight:

1. Thrust, drag, lift and weight are the forces on an airplane in flight.
2. The airplane is said to be in a state of equilibrium when thrust and drag are equal and opposite.
3. If weight is greater than lift, the airplane will sink.
4. If thrust is greater than drag, the airplane will decelerate.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 2, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Let f: R → R and g: R → R be defined by g(x) = x f(x). Then

1. g is one-one if f is one-one
2. g is a differentiable function
3. g is integrable over any finite interval [a, b], a, b ∈ R
4. g is differentiable at 0 if f is continuous at 0

The value of ∫ sin x cos x dx over the stated limits is equal to ...

1. π/2
2. 1/2
3. 1
4. π

Let F(α) = rotation matrix about z-axis and G(β) = rotation matrix about y-axis. Then the inverse of F(α)G(β) is

1. −G(β)F(α)
2. −G(−β)F(α)
3. G(−β)F(−α)
4. G(β)F(−α)

Let F(ω) be the Fourier transform of a function f(x). Then

1. lim|ω|→∞ |F(ω)| = 1
2. lim|ω|→∞ |F(ω)| = 0
3. lim|ω|→∞ |F(ω)| does not exist
4. lim|ω|→∞ |F(ω)| = e/√π

The Laplace transform L(s) of f(t) = ... [OCR garbled] is

1. π/s
2. √π/s
3. 1/s²
4. √π / 2s

The inverse Z-transform of F(z) = ... is

1. ...
2. ...
3. ...
4. ...

A flat plate of length 1 m and width 0.5 m is placed in an air stream at 30°C blowing parallel to it. The convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 Wm⁻²K⁻¹. What is the heat transfer if the plate is maintained at 300°C?

1. 4.00 kW
2. 4.05 kW
3. 4.50 kW
4. 4.55 kW

How many ground-based radio transmitters are required for an instrument landing system?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

The inlet and outlet temperatures of hot and cold fluids in a double-pipe counter-flow heat exchanger are 220°C, 100°C and 80°C, 120°C. What are the values of effectiveness of the exchanger and the capacity ratio respectively?

1. 85.7%, 0.13
2. 90.5%, 0.13
3. 85.7%, 0.33
4. 90.5%, 0.33

If N = [matrix rotation by angle 2θ], where θ is real, then A is

1. a Hermitian matrix
2. a skew-Hermitian matrix
3. an orthogonal matrix
4. a skew-symmetric matrix

As an airplane flying with constant velocity moves from a cold air mass into a warm air mass, how does the Mach number change?

1. It increases
2. It remains the same
3. It decreases
4. It randomly varies

A hot fluid is being conveyed through a long pipe of 4 cm outer diameter and covered with 2 cm thick insulation. It is proposed to reduce the conduction heat loss to the surroundings to one-third of the present rate by further covering with the same insulation material. What is the additional thickness of insulation?

1. 8 cm
2. 10 cm
3. 12 cm
4. 14 cm

A skier leaves the end of a horizontal ski jump at 22 m/s and falls through a vertical distance of 3.2 m before landing. Neglecting air resistance, how far horizontally does the skier travel in the air before landing?

1. 8.08 m
2. 17.80 m
3. 10.50 m
4. 27.23 m

Let V_s be the velocity of longitudinal sound waves propagating in an elastic solid cylindrical rod. What will be the velocity of these sound waves if the cross-sectional area of this solid rod is reduced to half?

1. √2 V_s
2. 2 V_s
3. V_s / √2
4. V_s / 2

What is the rank of the matrix ... where a, b, c are different real numbers with a + b + c = 0?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 0

How can thermal contact resistance between two solid bars be reduced?

1. By decreasing the joint pressure of compression
2. It is independent of joint pressure
3. By increasing the joint pressure of compression
4. By decreasing ambient gas pressure

Saturated steam at 100°C is condensing on the shell side of a shell-and-tube heat exchanger. The cooling water enters the tube at 30°C and leaves at 70°C. What is the arithmetic mean temperature difference if the arrangement is counter-flow?

1. 50°C
2. 40°C
3. 30°C
4. 20°C

At a point in an airflow the pressure, temperature and velocity are 1 atm, 320 K and 1000 m/s respectively. What is the total temperature at this point? (Assume γ = 1.4 and R = 287 J/kg-K)

1. 671.8 K
2. 718.8 K
3. 781.8 K
4. 817.8 K

The relationship between the velocity induced by a vortex tube and the strength (circulation) of the vortex tube can be predicted by

1. Helmholtz’s law
2. Prandtl’s law
3. Biot-Savart’s law
4. Froude’s law

Consider the following statements for the case of steady flow:

1. The magnitude and direction of the velocity vectors at all points are fixed, invariant with time.
2. Streamlines are different from pathlines.
3. Streamlines and pathlines are identical.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3

A small mass of 0.2 kg is attached to one end of a helical spring and produces an extension of 15 mm. The mass is now pulled down 10 mm and set into vertical oscillation of amplitude 10 mm. What is the period of oscillation?

1. 0.25 s
2. 0.65 s
3. 0.85 s
4. 0.95 s

One way to cool an ideal gas is to let it expand. When a certain gas under pressure 5 × 10⁶ Pa at 25°C is allowed to expand to 3 times its original volume, its final pressure becomes 1.07 × 10⁶ Pa. What is the final temperature of the system?

1. 162 K
2. 191 K
3. 262 K
4. 291 K

A thin convex refracting surface of radius of curvature 15 cm separates two media of refractive indices μ₁ and 1.50. An object is kept in the first medium at a distance of 240 cm from the surface. What is the image position in the second medium from the refracting surface?

1. 270 cm
2. 370 cm
3. 470 cm
4. 570 cm

Three engines operate between reservoirs separated in temperature by 300 K. The reservoir temperatures are as follows:
Engine A: T_h = 1000 K, T_c = 700 K
Engine B: T_h = 800 K, T_c = 500 K
Engine C: T_h = 600 K, T_c = 300 K
Rank the engines in order of their theoretically possible efficiency, from highest to lowest.

1. A, B, C
2. B, C, A
3. C, B, A
4. C, A, B

At an outdoor market, a bunch of bananas attached to the bottom of a vertical spring of force constant 16 N/m is set into oscillatory motion with amplitude 20 cm. It is observed that the maximum speed of the bunch is 40 cm/s. What is the weight of the bananas in newtons?

1. 34.8 N
2. 39.2 N
3. 46.4 N
4. 49.9 N

A train moving at a speed of 40 m/s sounds its whistle, which has a frequency of 500 Hz. What is the frequency heard by a stationary observer as the train approaches the observer? (Assume ambient temperature 24°C and speed of sound as 345 m/s)

1. 257 Hz
2. 317 Hz
3. 426 Hz
4. 566 Hz

Consider the flow of air over a small flat plate that is 5 cm long in the flow direction and 1 m wide. The free-stream conditions correspond to standard sea level, and flow velocity is 120 m/s. Assuming laminar flow, what is the boundary layer thickness at the downstream edge? (Take density and dynamic viscosity of air as 1.225 kg/m³ and 1.789 × 10⁻⁵ kg/m-s)

1. 8.95 × 10⁻⁴ m
2. 5.72 × 10⁻⁴ m
3. 5.67 × 10⁻⁴ m
4. 4.06 × 10⁻⁴ m

Consider the Northrop F-5 fighter airplane with wing area 15.79 m². The wing is generating 80000 N of lift. For a flight velocity of 402.34 kmph at standard sea level, what is the lift coefficient? (Take density as 1.225 kg/m³)

1. 0.16
2. 0.24
3. 0.44
4. 0.66

The pressure at a point on the wing of an airplane is 7.58 × 10⁴ N/m². The airplane is flying with a velocity of 70 m/s at conditions associated with a standard altitude of 2000 m. What is the pressure coefficient at this point on the wing? (For a standard altitude of 2000 m, p∞ = 7.95 × 10⁴ N/m² and ρ = 1.0066 kg/m³)

1. -1.92
2. -1.50
3. -1.37
4. -1.22

In an airplane fuselage, the stiffeners

1. are helpful in preventing buckling
2. are helpful in supporting lateral load
3. cannot prevent buckling
4. cannot support longitudinal load

Which one of the following instruments is used principally for the measurement of pressure in engine fuel and oil systems?

1. Manifold Pressure Gauge
2. Pressure Transmitter System
3. Ratiometer Pressure Indicator
4. Pressure Switch

Which one of the following equipments consists of devices like receiver, loop antenna, sense antenna and bearing indicator?

1. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
2. Automatic Direction Finder (ADF)
3. Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)
4. Transmitting Equipment (TE)

What is the operating range and receiving range of a Distance Measuring Equipment (DME) of aircraft instruments?

1. Operates in 960 MHz to 1713 MHz UHF range and receiving in 1151 MHz to 1213 MHz range
2. Operates in 960 MHz to 1713 MHz UHF range and receiving in 1014 MHz to 1213 MHz range
3. Operates in 960 MHz to 1215 MHz UHF range and receiving in 1014 MHz to 1213 MHz range
4. Operates in 960 MHz to 1215 MHz UHF range and receiving in 1025 MHz to 1150 MHz range

The radiant flux incident on the surface of a body is called

1. total hemispherical absorptivity
2. monochromatic hemispherical irradiation
3. monochromatic hemispherical absorptivity
4. total hemispherical irradiation

Consider the following statements for the effects of aircraft engine performance due to compressor contamination:

1. Contamination of compressor blades changes their aerodynamic shape.
2. It reduces the airflow area.
3. More power and higher rotor speeds are required to achieve the desired compressor pressure ratio.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 and 3 only

In the nose-gear shock strut, the link used to connect the strut cylinder to the piston and axle is called

1. Drag link
2. Torque link
3. Side brace link
4. Overcenter link

What is the meaning of straight polarity in arc welding?

1. The condition when the electrode is positive and the base metal or work is positive.
2. The condition when the electrode is earthed and the base metal or work is positive.
3. The condition when the electrode is positive and the base metal or work is earthed.
4. The condition when the electrode is negative and the base metal or work is positive.

Which one of the following hydraulic fluids is phosphate ester-base fluid?

1. MIL-O-5606
2. MIL-O-83282
3. Barco 882
4. Skydrol 500B-4

The pigment in paints is used to

1. hold the solvent in liquid form
2. provide the color and durability
3. dissolve the binder and carry it through the spray gun
4. dissolve the solvent

A chemical process in which cotton is exposed to the action of a strong caustic solution that tends to shrink the material and give it a silky appearance is called

1. Calendaring
2. Bias
3. Selvage
4. Mercerizing

For a given wing-body combination, the aerodynamic center lies 0.05 chord length ahead of the center of gravity. The moment coefficient about the aerodynamic center is -0.016. If the lift coefficient is 0.45, what is the moment coefficient about the center of gravity?

1. 0.0023
2. 0.0032
3. 0.0056
4. 0.0065

A force of 30 N is applied in the positive x-direction to a block of mass 8 kg, at rest on a frictionless surface. How fast is it going after 6 s?

1. 3.75 m/s
2. 22.5 m/s
3. 26.5 m/s
4. 18.5 m/s

The severity of the adverse pressure gradient on the main aerofoil can be reduced by which one of the following effects?

1. Vane effect
2. Fresh boundary layer effect
3. Slat effect
4. Smith effect

At a particular point in a structural member, a two-dimensional stress system exists where σx = 60 N/mm², σy = -40 N/mm² and τxy = 50 N/mm². If E = 200000 N/mm² and Poisson’s ratio ν = 0.3, what is the shear modulus?

1. 142857 N/mm²
2. 76923 N/mm²
3. 71428 N/mm²
4. 38461 N/mm²

Which type of fatigue is caused due to vibrations excited by jet or propeller noise?

1. Fretting fatigue
2. Cyclic fatigue
3. Dynamic fatigue
4. Acoustic fatigue

Which type of steel is used to manufacture aircraft arrester hooks?

1. High carbon steel
2. Low carbon steel
3. Maraging steel
4. Stainless steel

A cylindrical pressure vessel has an internal diameter of 2 m and is fabricated from plates 20 mm thick. If the pressure inside the vessel is 1.5 N/mm², what is the longitudinal stress produced by internal pressure?

1. 27.6 N/mm²
2. 29.8 N/mm²
3. 35.2 N/mm²
4. 37.5 N/mm²

A conductor has a constant current of five amperes. How many electrons pass a fixed point on the conductor in one minute?

1. 3.12 × 10¹⁹ electrons per minute
2. 1.87 × 10²¹ electrons per minute
3. 2.57 × 10²¹ electrons per minute
4. 3.85 × 10²¹ electrons per minute

Two magnetically coupled coils with self inductances of 1.6 H and 0.1 H are connected in parallel. The mutual inductance is 0.34 H. What is the effective inductance when the coils are connected in parallel opposing?

1. 0.0012 H
2. 0.0187 H
3. 0.1524 H
4. 1.5824 H

A 4-pole DC machine has a lap-wound armature with 50 slots, 16 conductors per slot. The useful flux per pole is 30 mWb. What is the speed at which the machine must be driven to generate an e.m.f. of 240 V when operated as a generator?

1. 600 rev/min
2. 500 rev/min
3. 400 rev/min
4. 300 rev/min

The wing span of a metal aeroplane is 36 m. If the aeroplane is flying at 400 kmph, what is the e.m.f. induced between its wing tips? (Assume vertical component of Earth’s magnetic field is 40 μT)

1. 0.76 V
2. 0.56 V
3. 0.36 V
4. 0.16 V

A DC electric motor consumes 36 MJ when connected to a 250 V supply for 1 hour. What is the amount of current drawn by the motor from mains?

1. 0.04 A
2. 2.4 A
3. 40 A
4. 2400 A

How much time does a current of 0.1 A take to transfer a charge of 30 C?

1. 300 s
2. 30 s
3. 3 s
4. 0.3 s

Which of the following is NOT a primary flight control surface of an airplane?

1. Aileron
2. Fuselage
3. Elevator
4. Rudder

Deflection of the elevator creates a moment on the airplane about

1. roll axis
2. pitch axis
3. yaw axis
4. pitch and roll axis

Deflection of the rudder creates a moment on the airplane about

1. pitch axis
2. roll axis
3. pitch and roll axis
4. yaw axis

Which of the following devices is used to control the maximum pressure in the pneumatic system and off-load the compressor when the system is idle?

1. Pressure reducing valve
2. Pressure regulator
3. Pressure intensifier
4. Shut-off valve

On landing, the spoiler is deflected to

1. increase landing distance
2. increase landing distance and to increase drag
3. reduce landing distance and to increase drag
4. reduce landing distance and to reduce drag

A flap is a segment of

1. fuselage
2. landing gear
3. aerofoil
4. cockpit

Which one of the following relations is used to calculate magneto speed in a magneto ignition system (MIS) of an aircraft?

1. ...
2. ...
3. ...
4. ...

An electrical control system uses three positional sensing devices, each of which produces 1 output when the position is confirmed. These devices are to be used in conjunction with a logic network of AND and OR gates and the output of the network is to be 1 when two or more of the sensing devices are producing signals of 1. The network with suitable logic function is represented as

1. F = (A + B)(B + C)(C + A)
2. F = A.B + B.C + C.A
3. F = A.B.C + A.B + B.C + C.A
4. F = A + B + C

What minimum input voltage level is required to switch a BJT into saturation (ON state), when Vcc = 10 V, Rb = 16 kΩ, Rc = 6.2 kΩ and βdc = 20 in an n-p-n CE configuration BJT? (Assume VBE = 0.7 V)

1. 0.59 V
2. 0.99 V
3. 1.09 V
4. 1.99 V

If an alternating current completes 5 cycles in 8 ms, what is its frequency?

1. 325 Hz
2. 425 Hz
3. 525 Hz
4. 625 Hz

A bipolar transistor has a common-emitter current gain of 125. If the transistor operates with a collector current of 50 mA, what is the value of base current?

1. 400 μA
2. 40 μA
3. 4 μA
4. 0.4 μA

An electron has a velocity of 10⁷ m/s when it enters a magnetic field perpendicularly to the direction of the flux. If the flux density is uniform at 0.5 mT and the axial length of the magnetic field is 2 cm, what is the radius of curvature of the electron path in the magnetic field? (Assume e/m = 1.76 × 10¹¹ C/kg)

1. 11.36 cm
2. 1.136 cm
3. 22.72 cm
4. 2.272 cm

What is K value in (127.24)₈ = (K)₁₀?

1. 87.1325
2. 87.2135
3. 87.3125
4. 87.1125

Which one of the following systems is most suitable for short-range navigation of airplanes?

1. Long Range Radio Aid to Navigation (LORAN)
2. Instrument Landing System (ILS)
3. VHF Omni-directional Range (VOR)
4. Global Positioning System (GPS)

Which one of the following engine types is having maximum flight Mach number as 0.5?

1. Ramjet engine
2. Turboprop engine
3. Turbojet engine
4. Piston engine with propeller

For a Fanno flow curve, in the subsonic region friction causes

1. irreversible deceleration of the flow with pressure rise
2. irreversible deceleration of the flow with pressure drop
3. irreversible acceleration of the flow with pressure drop
4. irreversible acceleration of the flow with pressure rise

The thrust of rocket engines is

1. directly proportional to flight speed
2. directly proportional to square of flight speed
3. inversely proportional to flight speed
4. independent of flight speed

Engine Pressure Ratio (EPR) is defined as

1. the ratio of the compressor inlet pressure to the ambient pressure
2. the ratio of turbine exit pressure to ambient pressure
3. the ratio of turbine exit pressure to compressor inlet pressure
4. the ratio of compressor inlet pressure to turbine exit pressure

Across a strong normal shock, the ratio of density after the shock to that of before the shock attains a value of

1. ...
2. zero
3. ...
4. infinity

In a ramjet engine, the inlet static pressure rise is achieved by

1. venturimeter
2. nozzle
3. diffuser
4. tail pipe

What is the surface tension in a soap bubble of 40 mm diameter when the inside pressure is 2.5 N/m² above atmospheric pressure?

1. 125 N/m
2. 0.0125 N/m
3. 0.125 N/m
4. 12.5 N/m

A wing of a small aeroplane is rectangular in plan, having a span of 12 m and chord of 1.8 m. In a horizontal flight at a speed of 200 km/h, the total aerodynamic force acting on the wing is 28 kN. If the lift-drag ratio is 10, what is the coefficient of lift? (Assume q for air as 1.2 kg/m³)

1. 0.4
2. 0.5
3. 0.6
4. 0.7

When two hydraulic pumps are arranged in series, the resulting pump performance curve is obtained

1. by adding flow rates at the same head
2. by multiplying flow rates at the same head
3. by adding heads at the same flow rate
4. by multiplying heads at the same flow rate

The radial velocity of a flow is described by v_r = m/r cos θ. If v_t = 0 at r = 0, what is the stream function ψ for the flow?

1. ψ = v_r r sin θ
2. ψ = √v_r r sin θ
3. ψ = v_r √r cos θ
4. ψ = v_r √r sin θ

A turbine develops 9000 kW when running at 100 rpm. The head on the turbine is 30 m. If the head on the turbine is reduced to 18 m, what is the speed?

1. 77.46 rpm
2. 42.38 rpm
3. 14.12 rpm
4. 53.48 rpm

A horizontal pipe of diameter d₁ has a sudden expansion to a diameter d₂. For maximum differential pressure condition under sudden expansion, the ratio of d₂/d₁ is

1. 1
2. 1/√2
3. √2
4. 2

Consider the following statements regarding the requirements for a good forced landing field for the airplane:

1. Firm surface, reasonably smooth, with sufficient space to effect a landing into wind.
2. The approach should be clear of obstacles such as trees, telephone wires, high tension lines, houses, etc.
3. Try to choose a field near houses or a road so that help is readily available.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following is the tell-tale sign for a pilot when the wind speed is between 25 and 31 knots?

1. Smoke drifts and water ripples
2. Small branches move; long waves and frequent whitecaps can be seen on water surfaces
3. Large branches move; large waves spray and white foam crests break the surface of water bodies
4. Small wavelets break the surface of water bodies but there are no white caps

What is meant by Rime Ice?

1. A heavy coating of glassy ice which forms when flying in dense cloud or freezing rain.
2. A white semi-crystalline frost, which covers the surface of the airplane, forms in clear air by sublimation.
3. An opaque or milky white deposit of ice.
4. A drizzling rain from stratus cloud with higher water content.

Consider the following statements regarding light gun signals with respect to an aircraft on the ground:

1. The flashing green light signal on the ground means the aircraft is cleared to taxi.
2. The flashing red light means the aircraft must taxi clear of the runway in use.
3. The flashing white signal means the airport is safe; landing is permitted.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding uses of radio frequency:

1. 3 kHz to 30 kHz band used for civil communications.
2. 30 MHz to 300 MHz band used for naval communications.
3. 300 MHz to 3000 MHz band used for military communications.
4. 3 GHz to 30 GHz band used for RADAR.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Consider the following statements: On-board GPS receiver in the aircraft consists of

1. An antenna tuned to satellite transmission frequencies.
2. Receiver signal processor.
3. Highly stable crystal-controlled local clock.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements regarding aircraft categories:

1. Bellanca Viking is category-I aircraft.
2. Douglas DC-6 is category-II aircraft.
3. Cessna Citation is category-III aircraft.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements with regard to aircraft certification service:

1. Administering safety standards governing the design, production and airworthiness of civil aeronautical products.
2. Overseeing design, production and airworthiness certification programs to ensure compliance with prescribed safety standards.
3. Providing a safety performance management system to ensure continued operational safety of aircraft.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements is related to preventive maintenance of aircraft?

1. Inspection, overhaul, repair, preservation and the replacement of parts.
2. Simple or minor preservation operations and replacement of small or standard parts not involving complex assembly operations.
3. Changing the design of the aircraft from that originally certificated.
4. Repair, if not done properly, might appreciably affect weight, balance, structural strength, performance, or power-plant operation.

Consider the following statements: The operations office shall maintain the operational and flight records of personnel and monitor records of each crew member in order to ensure that

1. The flight and duty time limitations are complied with; crew licences and instrument ratings are maintained.
2. Validity of crew medical checks.
3. All proficiency checks are carried out as per procedures and within stipulated periods.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements: Any aircraft engaged in public transport, including aerial work and flying training, shall not be flown unless

1. It has been maintained in accordance with requirements specified by the Director-General of Civil Aviation or as stipulated in the approved maintenance schedule.
2. Maintenance of the aircraft has been carried out by or under the supervision of a person licensed or approved or authorised for the purpose by the Director-General of Civil Aviation.
3. All maintenance carried out has been certified by appropriately licensed engineers, approved or authorised persons within the period specified.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Consider the following statements: The certificate of airworthiness of an aircraft shall be deemed to be suspended when an aircraft

1. Is modified or repaired otherwise in accordance with the provisions of these rules.
2. Develops a major defect which would affect the safety of the aircraft or its occupants in subsequent flights.
3. Suffers minor damage.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

For how many years shall the log books of flight crew personnel and flight time be preserved in respect of all aircraft registered in India after the date of the last entry therein?

1. not less than two years
2. not less than three years
3. not less than four years
4. not less than five years

What is the minimum age on the date of application to apply for a pilot’s licence for microlight aircraft?

1. 20 years
2. 18 years
3. 17 years
4. 16 years